*Below is a point-by-point exegetical refutation of the charges of Edward Dalcour against the Oneness Pentecostal interpretation of Acts 2.38 that can be corroborated HERE.  We have simply copied Mr. Dalcour’s article in *bold black (as here) and offered categorical responses immediately following in *blue (as here).  This expositional series on the specific grammar of Acts 2.38 will be divided into a tetralogy (i.e., IV segments).  Stay tuned for three more posts in this sequence soon to follow.  Enjoy!

(Dalcour):  “Repent, and be baptized every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. . . .” (KJV).

(Dalcour):  The United Pentecostals Church International (UPCI) uses this passage (among others) to support its view that water baptism MUST be done “in the name of Jesus” only to be valid.  Since the UPCI theology holds to the idea that Jesus IS the “Father,” “Son,” and “Holy Spirit.”

*As we will demonstrate below, the only NT water baptisms recorded were always performed with an oral invocation of the name of Jesus Christ (e.g., Acts 2.38; Acts 8.16; Acts 10.48; Acts 19.5; Acts 22.16; I Corinthians 1.13; I Corinthians 6.11; Romans 6.3; Galatians 3.27; James 2.7)—not once in “the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.”

*Hence, in reality, the UPCI simply practices what the scriptures demand relative to the necessity of water baptism in Jesus’s name (Acts 4.12).  That is, Oneness believers do not use this passage to support anything—this passage uses us for biblical salvation!

(Dalcour):  The UPCI’s position is clear: Peter commands new converts to (a) repent be water baptized and (b) be baptized only by way of the exact formula:  “in the name of Jesus.”

*As repeatedly pointed out to Trinitarian apologists, the UPCI’s biblical position regarding baptism in the name of Jesus Christ does not equal some sort of incantation.  It does no good to invoke His name without faith in the same—much like Trinitarians often conclude their prayers by employing the prepositional phrase “in the name of Jesus.”

*Indeed, God healed a lame man through faith in the invoked name of Jesus (Acts 3.6).  And, “Whoever shall call upon the name of the Lord will be saved” (Romans 10.13; BLT).  The Apostle Peter applied this concept to the Day of Pentecost wherein many were both water and Spirit baptized (cf. Acts 2.21).  Why then object to the identical prepositional phrase when baptizing?  Answer:  the creedal doctrine of the Trinity!

(Dalcour):  Therefore, as the UPCI asserts, the remission or forgiveness of sins is accomplished only by water baptism “in the name of Jesus,” and repentance.  However, only by disregarding the historical context and particular grammar, can the UPCI hold to such a heterodox view.

*Greek text of Acts 2.38 (NA28):  Πέτρος δὲ ⸂πρὸς αὐτούς· μετανοήσατε, [φησίν⸃,] καὶ βαπτισθήτω ἕκαστος ὑμῶν ⸀ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματι ⸆ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς ἄφεσιν ⸄τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ὑμῶν⸅ καὶ λήμψεσθε τὴν δωρεὰν τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος.

*In both reality and exegesis, the polar opposite of Dalcour’s typically erroneous accusation(s) above is true!  That is, the context and specific grammar of this text are the very agents that hold Oneness believers hostage to the conviction that water baptism in Jesus name is necessary for biblical salvation.  The “context” was salvation (cf. Acts 2.40)—which included water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ in the clearest way.

*Moreover, who is charging Oneness believers with “heterodox(y)”—agenda-driven Trinitarians like Dalcour?  This would be identical to Mormons labeling other movements as “heretics.”  Simply, such an indictment is useless—especially coming from Trinitarians!

*Further, if Dalcour were to place himself standing in the listening audience on the Day of Pentecost, would he have been part of the three thousand who obeyed Peter’s plain language (cf. Acts 2.41)?  Or, would Mr. Dalcour have tortured Peter’s clear instructions “thus making void the word of God by your tradition” (Mark 7.13)?  That is, if Dalcour would have actually heard the Apostle Peter command water baptism “in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins”—would he have obeyed this clear edict?  It certainly doesn’t look like it!

*In his distinguished work entitled The Book of Acts, celebrated Professor of Biblical Criticism and Exegesis, Dr. F.F. Bruce noted (of 2.38):

The reply was unspeakably reassuring.  Incredible as it must appear, Peter told them that there was hope even now.  Let them repent of their sin and turn to God;  let them submit to baptism in the name of Jesus, confessed as Messiah.  Then not only would they receive forgiveness of sins, but they would receive also the gift of the Holy Spirit—the gift which had been bestowed on the apostles themselves only a few hours before…it might have been expected that, when the disciples experienced the outpouring of the Spirit from the day of Pentecost onward, they would discontinue water baptism as having been superseded by something better.  In fact they did not:  they continued to baptize converts in water “for the forgiveness of sins,” but this baptism was now part of a more comprehensive initiation which took its character especially from the receiving of the Spirit.

The practice of baptism was tolerably familiar to Peter’s hearers, who (like John’s hearers before them) were required to receive baptism in water as the outward and visible sign of their repentance.  But there are now two new features in the rite of water baptism: it is administered “in the name of Jesus Christ” and it is associated with “the gift of the Holy Spirit.”

It (baptism) is administered “in the name of Jesus Christ”—not only by his authority but also, probably, in the sense that his name was invoked or confessed by the person being baptized (cf. 22:16).  In addition, the person who administered the baptism appears to have named the name of Jesus over converts as they were being baptized (cf. 15:17)…It would indeed be a mistake to link the words “for the forgiveness of sins” with the command “be baptized” to the exclusion of the prior command to repent.

In a similar passage in the next chapter (3:19) the blotting out of the people’s sins is a direct consequence of their repenting and turning to God; nothing is said about baptism, although it is no doubt implied (the idea of an unbaptized believer does not seem to be entertained in the New Testament).  So here the reception of the Spirit is conditional not on baptism in itself but on baptism in Jesus’ name as the expression of repentance.  

(Dalcour):  Furthermore, the doctrine of baptismal regeneration controverts the theology of Luke (e.g., Acts 10:43).

*Though Trinitarian apologists have been informed of this ad nauseum, we will once again repeat that Oneness believers do not teach “baptismal regeneration” since genuine biblical salvation is predicated upon much more than water baptism.

(Dalcour):  Even so, UPCI leader David Bernard remarks on the necessity of water baptism, as he understands Acts 2:38:

“We should remember that water baptism is administered because of our past life of sin; it is for the ‘remission of sins’ (Acts 2:38).  Since the name of Jesus is the only saving name (Acts 4:12), it is logical that the name be used in baptism”  (The Oneness of God, 139).

*Bishop Bernard has plainly stated that prayer and water baptism without faith in the name of Jesus Christ are useless:

But the name of Jesus is not a magical formula; prayer is effective only if we have faith in, and truly know, the One whom the name represents (Acts 3:16; 10:43).  Bernard, David K.  In the Name of Jesus (Kindle Locations 333-334).

*Moreover, Elder Bernard has adamantly rejected the inflammatory charge of “baptismal regeneration.”  For example, on page 131 of Dr. Bernard’s work The New Birth he writes:

At this point, we must emphasize that the Bible does not teach “baptismal regeneration,” for the water and the ceremony do not have saving power in themselves.  Water baptism is not a magical act; it is without spiritual value unless accompanied by conscious faith and repentance.  Baptism is important only because God has ordained it to be so. God could have chosen to remit sin without baptism, but in the New Testament church He has chosen to do so at the moment of baptism…God alone remits sins based on Christ’s atoning death.  When we submit to water baptism according to God’s plan, God honors our obedient faith and remits our sin.

*Will Dalcour now practice scholastic integrity and retract his false charges against Bro. Bernard?  I certainly won’t hold my breath!  Indeed, I do not know a single Oneness believer who embraces the doctrine of baptismal regeneration.  This is but another of Dalcour’s straw man fabrications—as he typically does with Oneness believers (i.e., charging us with things we do not even believe).  So much for academical honor!

*See more here from Dr. Bernard himself:

http://altupc.com/altupc/articles/chresp.htm

http://altupc.com/altupc/articles/upcicult.htm

http://mikeblume.com/onecriti.htm

(Dalcour):  In proper biblical interpretation:  Context governs word meanings.  This is a vital point in exegesis.

*We completely agree!  Indeed, the various governing contexts are honestly the very basis of our rejection of the Trinity doctrine—as well as our insistence on Jesus name baptism (cf., e.g., Matthew 28.18-20 and Colossians 2.9).

(Dalcour):  In other words, whatever Acts 2:38 is saying, it cannot oppose the NT as a whole in which the constant theme is justification (salvation) is through faith (as the sole instrument), apart from works—any works, such as the work of water baptism (cf. John 5:24; Rom. 4:4-8; 5:1; 1 Cor. 1:17, 30-31; Eph. 2:8-10; 1 John 5:1 et al).

*First, even many Trinitarian exegetes (with far more credentials than Dalcour) reject the Reform mantra of sola fide as underscored in the quotation below regarding James 2:

James 2:24:  You see therefore that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone (ὁρᾶτε ὅτι ἐξ ἔργων δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος καὶ οὐκ ἐκ πίστεως μόνον).  James returns to his main point in vv. 14 – 26 for a fourth time (recall vv. 14, 17, and 20).  In this sentence, he wants to ensure that his audience has reached the proper conclusion from the example of Abraham.  The plural “you see” (ὁρᾶτε) shows that he is addressing everyone in his congregations again, not merely the imaginary disputant.  He pulls “by works” (ἐξ ἔργων) to the front of the sentence for emphasis, underscoring his argument.  James again uses the verb for a demonstration of justification, so that his statement connotes that “by works a person is shown to be justified.”  It is by people’s actions that they prove the reality of their professions of faith, both to others and to God.

It is interesting to note that this is the only time in the NT that the three words “by faith alone” (ἐκ πίστεως μόνον) appear without intervening material.  That expression is the best Greek translation of the Reformation rallying call, sola fide, “by faith alone,” but this is exactly the opposite of what James is arguing for!  (James; Zondervan Exegetical Commentary of the NT; Craig L. Blomberg; Mariam J. Kamell).

*In footnote no. 72 Dr. Blomberg notes:  The Reformation slogan came in part from Luther’s German translation of the Bible, which added “alone” (allein) as an interpretive gloss in Ro 3:28.  Martin (James, 96) actually sees James’s use of μόνον as support for Paul’s view of faith, for neither Paul nor James would have supported a faith that did nothing.  Johnson (The Letter of James, 244) draws out the parallel use of μόνον in 1:22, with the contrast there of “hearing only” vs. “doing the word.”

*(James 2.14-24; NET):  What good is it, my brothers and sisters, if someone claims to have faith but does not have works?  Can this kind of faith save him?  If a brother or sister is poorly clothed and lacks daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, keep warm and eat well,” but you do not give them what the body needs, what good is it?  So also faith, if it does not have works, is dead being by itself.  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.”  Show me your faith without works and I will show you faith by my works.  You believe that God is one (masc. sing. adj. εἷς); well and good.  Even the demons believe that – and tremble with fear.

But would you like evidence, you empty fellow, that faith without works is useless?  Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?  You see that his faith was working together with his works and his faith was perfected by works.  And the scripture was fulfilled that says, “Now Abraham believed God and it was counted to him for righteousness,” and he was called Godʼs friend.  You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

*Note also that this epistle is written by the hand of an Apostle (James) who was water baptized in Jesus name (Acts 2) and spoke in tongues upon receiving the Holy Spirit (Acts 1.13)—the very experience that Dalcour is attempting to eradicate!  (Note: see also Revelation 14.12 which clearly shows that biblical salvation consists of faith and obedience to God’s commandments.)

*Of course, thousands of erasers from the Reform camp have been worn out over the last 500 years in a desperate attempt to render these clear passages of no affect.  Indeed, Martin Luther questioned the veracity of the book of James calling it a “straw-epistle!”  Simply, these very plain verses directly militate against the false dichotomy put forth by the Reform party of faith vs. works.  James and Paul are not at odds with one another in their soteriological conclusions.  Biblical salvation flows out of invisible faith that manifests itself with visible works.  In sum, no works—no true faith!

*Further, if Dalcour dismisses “any works” (as he does above) relative to salvation—does this include repentance?  Does a person not even have to repent of their sins to be saved now?  The practicing drug addict, liar, thief, adulterer, etc. are now “saved” since many of them openly profess faith in Christ.  In fact, when I was a practicing drug addict I had faith in Christ (and indeed used to lament that I was not in church).  Was I saved at that time?  Of course not!

*Even worse for the Reform camp, the Bible explicitly identifies repentance as “works.”  In Paul’s testimony before Agrippa he affirms that he preached:  to those in Damascus and Jerusalem, and all the region of Judea, and to the Gentiles, I kept declaring to repent and to turn to God, doing works worthy of repentance.  (Acts 26.20; BLT)

*Note the present active participle of means translated “doing” (πράσσοντας) [works] demonstrating the means by which these unbelievers were converted, viz., repentance!  (Incidentally, observe also that there is no mention of “faith” in this soteriological passage – nor in Acts 2.38!)  Bear in mind that this is the same Apostle Paul who wrote the oft-appealed-to Romans 4 exposition on works—and yet Paul plainly identified repentance as “works.”  Conversely, the Bible never labels water baptism as a “work!”

*Dr. Craig Keener notes:

By preaching deeds appropriate to repentance (ἄξια τῆς μετανοίας), Paul closely echoes John’s preaching in Luke 3:8 (ἀξίους τῆς μετανοίας), offering continuity between these prophets.  The verb for “practicing” such deeds does not appear in Luke 3:8 but might allow for a contextual contrast with the forensic “practicing deeds deserving death” in Luke 23:15, 41; Acts 25:11, 25; 26:31….Naturally, by the label “repentance,” Paul’s message advocated some specific content (see comment on Acts 2:38), but the summary here is not inaccurate, or unusual for Luke, for whom not only John (Luke 3:3, 8) but Jesus (5:32; 10:13; 11:32; 13:3-5; 15:7, 10) and Peter (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 8:22; 11:18) preached repentance.  This was part of the summary of the apostolic commission (Luke 24:47); though Paul sometimes summarizes it as John’s message (Acts 13:24; 19:4), he shares it himself toward both Gentiles and Jews, as here (17:30; 20:21).  (Acts, An Exegetical Commentary, Vol. 1-4; Craig S. Keener; Acts 26.20)

*As referenced above, every scriptural citation in Dalcour’s parenthetical reference overhead was penned by the hands of men who had already been water baptized in Jesus name (with an oral invocation of the name, [cf. Acts 22.16]) and spoke in tongues upon reception of the Holy Spirit—as well as the churches being addressed in these epistles (e.g., Acts 1.13, 8.16, 10.1-48, 19.1-6; I Corinthians 14.18).

*We call this spiritual “invasion of privacy!”  That is, Dalcour here opens letters addressed to born-again believers who has already experienced Christian initiation via John 3.3-5/Acts 2.38—which he wars against in his effort to protect his religious tradition(s).  Thus, Dalcour is opening someone else’s mail and then addressing it to himself—is there a lawyer in the house?!

(Dalcour): Note, that there at least four acceptable interpretations of the passage.  However, of the interpretations offered by competent Christian theologians, none provide for baptismal regeneration.

*As usual, Dalcour classifies only those who agree with his doctrinal posture as “competent Christian theologians.”  Of course, all the while Dalcour constantly appeals to the likes of Drs. Joseph Thayer, Robert Funk, Judaic-Aramaic Targums, etc.  This is vintage Dalcour:  petition anti-Trinitarian resources when attempting to validate his “Trinity” doctrine—yet cry “foul” if Oneness believers marshal a Trinitarian resource!  Dalcour has utilized these unequal scales for over a decade and we do not look for him to change his methodology anytime soon.  Even though this has been pointed out to him ad nauseum Dalcour just stubbornly forges ahead with his fingers stuck in his ears (a natural outgrowth of his “Calvinist” soteriological views)!  

(Dalcour):  Thus, Paul says:  “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel. . . .” (1 Cor. 1:17).

*Yes, but Paul only said this after he had just affirmed (only four verses earlier) that the entire Corinthian church had already been baptized in Jesus’s name—the very doctrine Dalcour seeks to eradicate!  Hence, if the natural flow of the author is allowed to stand unaided by Trinitarians the original audience had already read:

Is Christ divided?  Was Paul crucified for you?  Or were you baptized in the name of Paul? (I Corinthians 1.13; ESV; Cf. also 6.11)

*Dalcour just never seems to learn (more about this passage above in a separate post)!

(Dalcour):  For example, noted Greek grammarian J. R. Mantey offers one such acceptable interpretation.  He argued that the preposition eis (“for”) could be causal, hence the passage could read:  “And Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and be baptized—each one of you—at the name of Jesus Christ because of/for/unto the forgiveness of your sins.’”

*The supposed “causal” force of the preposition εἰς (“for”) is an age-old dodge by Trinitarian grammarians that has been thoroughly debunked as we demonstrate at length below.

(Dalcour):  In other words, the preposition eis should be translated “because of,” or “in view of” not “in order to” or “for the purpose of” forgiveness of sins.

*As the lengthy treatments below demonstrate—this is patently false.  In fact,  some years ago now a Church of Christ (CofC) minister sent Acts 2.38 to the following noted college professors inquiring if the Greek preposition “eis” (“for”) could mean “because of” in said passage.  Below are their direct replies (note:  he also includes excerpts from some older grammarians in his list below).  We have left the CAPS just as we received them in the following quotations (presumably for emphasis):

 1. Frederick M. Combellack, University of Oregon:

“The Greek proposition ‘eis’ is NOT used to express cause.  One of its common uses is to express purpose.  That is the usage illustrated in the passage you quote from Acts 2:38.  Peter means ‘Let each of you be baptized in the Name of Jesus Christ FOR THE PURPOSE of the remission of yours sins’.”

2. J. B. McDiarmid, Executive Officer, University of Washington, Department of Classics, Seattle:

“Thank you for your letter of November 4, I think that ‘eis’ NEVER means ‘because of’ in the sense ‘as the result of.’  It may mean ‘because of’ in the sense of ‘with a view toward,’ as apparently it does in this passage.  That it may express the end either literal or figurative TOWARD which the action tends.  In this passage the remission of sins is the END of the act of baptism.”

3. Robert B. Cross, Department of Greek and Latin, University of Southern California, Los Angeles, CA:

“As far as I am able to determine ‘eis’ in the New Testament at any rate can ONLY be translated by such a phrase as ‘for the purpose of, in order to accomplish’ and such-like.  It could be translated ‘because of’ in the sense of ‘for the purpose of’ or ‘for the cause of’-which means exactly the same thing.  It could NEVER mean ‘because of’ in the sense of ‘on account of’.”

 4. John L. Heller, Professor of the Classics, University of Illinois:

“I do NOT believe that ‘eis’ ever means ‘because of’ and certainly NOT in the passage you quote:  ‘Peter said unto them, Repent and be baptized, each of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the sake of forgiveness of your sins.’  Here ‘eis’ is certainly NOT causal but final, meaning ‘for the purpose of, in order to receive’.”

 5. John V. A. Fine, Department of Classics, Princeton University, Princeton, NJ:

“To the best of my knowledge ‘eis’ CANNOT mean ‘because of.’  It does not express ‘cause’ but frequently expresses purpose.  Acts 2:38 I shall translate (literally) as follows:  ‘And Peter said unto them Repent and let each of you be baptized in the Name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins’.”

6. Warren E. Lake, Professor of Greek Language and Literature, Dept. of Greek, University of Michigan:

“The preposition ‘eis’ can never have the force of ‘because of’ at any period of the language.  Its primary meaning is ALWAYS ‘to’ or ‘into’ in the NT and in Modern Greek ‘in.’  It is used in this passage in the metaphorical sense of ‘limit of motion,’ i.e., ‘be baptized unto or with a view to’ remission of sins.  This is seen fairly frequent in the NT particularly with the articular infinitive.  Cf. Rom. 3:25; Mt. 20:19; Rom. 1:11; 1Cor. 9:28; etc.”

7. E. Bundy, Asst. Prof. of Classics, University of Berkley, Berkley, CA.:

“The preposition denotes ‘purpose,’ ‘for the remittance of your sins,’ or ‘with a view to remit,’ etc. or ‘in order to (gain) remittance,’ or some such expression.  Peter said unto them Repent and be baptized each of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remittance of your sins…”  Eis could ONLY be translated ‘because of, means, (or) purpose’.”

8. Henry B. Dewing, Bowdoin College and President of Athens College, Athens Greece:  

“I should say that ‘eis’ indicates not a result or consequence, but rather END or design.  I should translate, “Let every one of you be baptized (to the attainment of) forgiveness of sins…”  The meaning ‘because of’ is UTTERLY OUT OF THE QUESTION.”

 9. Henry Darling Brackett, Professor of Greek, Clark College:

“Eis means ‘In order to,’ but ‘for the purpose of’ is better, because the fundamental universal meaning of ‘eis’ is ‘toward, into, or in the direction of’ and NOT ‘out of,’ ‘arising from’ or ‘because of’.”

10. Frank Hugh Foster, Instructor of New Testament Greek, Oberlin Graduate School of Theology:

“The meaning of ‘eis’ may be either of two things, either to indicate the purpose…or to indicate the result.  In the first place it would be translated ‘in order to gain’ in the second, ‘with the result of’.  It NEVER means ‘because of’.”

11. E. A. Nida, member of Editorial board of “The Bible Translator.”  Vol. 3, no. 3, July 1952:

“‘Repent, and be baptized’ and ‘sins are forgiven.’  Our problem at this point is to determine the relationship of these two expressions as we find it indicated in the Greek preposition ‘eis’ usually translated ‘into,’ but having a variety of meanings including ‘unto,’ ‘for,’ ‘in regard to.’  It is not easy to determine the precise relationships between these processes.  We may regard the Greek ‘eis’ as resultive, i.e. – the ‘baptism of repentance’ results in forgiveness of sins.

“However ‘eis’ could also designate the purpose of the baptism….In English we can use the ambiguous conjunctive phrase ‘so that’ and translate the portion of the verse as ‘repent and be baptized so that their sins may be forgiven.’  The use of ‘so that…may’ still leaves ambiguity, as between purpose and result, but the principle emphasis is upon purpose.”

12. Professor Flagg, Cornell University:

“In respect to your inquiry about the force of the preposition ‘eis’ in the passage of the NT to which you refer (Acts 2:38), I should say that it denoted intent or purpose with a view to, much as if it has been written, ‘so as to obtain the remission of sins’.”

13. J. H. Huddleston, Professor of Greek, University of Maine:

“Peter spoke to them ‘repent and let each one of you be baptized in the Name of Jesus Christ to the end (that there may be) delivery from your sins.  ‘EIS’ CANNOT mean ‘because of’ but as often in the NT ‘for the purpose of’.”

14. Edgar J. Goodspeed, Professor of Biblical & Patristic Greek, University of Chicago:  

“Peter said unto them you must repent and every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, in order to have your sins forgiven.  It NEVER means ‘because of’.”

 15. Donald L. Wise, Moody Bible Institute:

“We are inclined to agree with you that the evidence of its usage and interpretation in context indicate that the preposition (Eis in Acts 2:38) is used to indicate purpose.”

16. Clinton W. Keys, Assistant Professor of Greek and Latin, Columbia University, New York City:

“Change your attitudes and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the removal of your sins.’  ‘Eis’ takes the accusative ‘aphesin.’  I don’t see that it can mean anything but ‘for,’ or ‘for the purpose of’.”

 17. Canon Emile Chartier, Vuce Rector, Montreal University:

“But there is one meaning it (eis) never bears, and that is the causal (because of) {He paraphrases Acts 2.38 as:} – ‘if you are sorry of your sins and you undergo baptism, your sins will be forgiven’……”

*To be continued in part II soon (above).  Thank you for reading!